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Let F Be a Function From R To R, Such That F(X) = Cos (X + 2). Is F Invertible? Justify Your Answer. - Mathematics

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प्रश्न

Let f be a function from R to R, such that f(x) = cos (x + 2). Is f invertible? Justify your answer.

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उत्तर

Injectivity:
Let x and y be two elements in the domain (R), such that

f (x) = f (y)

⇒ cos ( x+2 ) = cos ( y+2 )

⇒ x+2 = y+2 or x + 2 = 2π − ( y+2 )

⇒ x = y or x + 2 = 2π - y - 2

⇒ x = y or x = 2π - y - 4

So, we cannot say that  x = y 

For example,

`cos  π/2 = cos  (3π)/2 =0 `

`So, π /2and (3x)/2` have the same image 0.

f is not one-one.
f is not a bijection.
Thus, f  is not invertible.

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पाठ 2: Functions - Exercise 2.4 [पृष्ठ ६९]

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आरडी शर्मा Mathematics [English] Class 12
पाठ 2 Functions
Exercise 2.4 | Q 21 | पृष्ठ ६९

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