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Sin^–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin^–1 x = π/2, then x is equal to ______.

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Question

sin–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin–1 x = `pi/2`, then x is equal to ______.

Options

  • `0, 1/2`

  • `1, 1/2`

  • 0

  • `1/2`

MCQ
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Solution

sin–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin–1 x = `pi/2`, then x is equal to 0.

Explanation:

`sin^-1 (1 - x) - 2 sin^-1 x = pi/2`

⇒ `sin^-1 (1 - x) = pi/2 + 2 sin^-1 x`

⇒ 1 – x = cos[cos–1 (1 – 2x2)]

⇒ 1 – x = 1 – 2x2

⇒ 2x2 – x = 0

⇒ `x = 0, 1/2`

But `x = 1/2` does not satisfy the equation.

So, x = 0.

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Chapter 2: Inverse Trigonometric Functions - Miscellaneous Exercise on Chapter 2 [Page 31]

APPEARS IN

NCERT Mathematics Part 1 and 2 [English] Class 12
Chapter 2 Inverse Trigonometric Functions
Miscellaneous Exercise on Chapter 2 | Q 14. | Page 31
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