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Sin–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin–1 x = π/2, then x is equal to ______. - Mathematics

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Question

sin–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin–1 x = `pi/2`, then x is equal to ______.

Options

  • `0, 1/2`

  • `1, 1/2`

  • 0

  • `1/2`

MCQ
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Solution

sin–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin–1 x = `pi/2`, then x is equal to 0.

Explanation:

sin–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin–1 x = `pi/2`

⇒ sin–1 (1 – x) = `pi/2 + 2 sin^-1 x`

⇒ 1 − x = cos[cos−1 (1 − 2x2)]

⇒ 1 − x = 1 − 2x2

⇒ 2x2 − x = 0

⇒ x = `0, 1/2`

But x = `1/2` does not satisfy the equation, so x = 0.

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Chapter 2: Inverse Trigonometric Functions - Exercise 2.3 [Page 52]

APPEARS IN

NCERT Mathematics Part 1 and 2 [English] Class 12
Chapter 2 Inverse Trigonometric Functions
Exercise 2.3 | Q 16 | Page 52

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