मराठी

Sin^–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin^–1 x = π/2, then x is equal to ______.

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प्रश्न

sin–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin–1 x = `pi/2`, then x is equal to ______.

पर्याय

  • `0, 1/2`

  • `1, 1/2`

  • 0

  • `1/2`

MCQ
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उत्तर

sin–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin–1 x = `pi/2`, then x is equal to 0.

Explanation:

`sin^-1 (1 - x) - 2 sin^-1 x = pi/2`

⇒ `sin^-1 (1 - x) = pi/2 + 2 sin^-1 x`

⇒ 1 – x = cos[cos–1 (1 – 2x2)]

⇒ 1 – x = 1 – 2x2

⇒ 2x2 – x = 0

⇒ `x = 0, 1/2`

But `x = 1/2` does not satisfy the equation.

So, x = 0.

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पाठ 2: Inverse Trigonometric Functions - Miscellaneous Exercise on Chapter 2 [पृष्ठ ३१]

APPEARS IN

एनसीईआरटी Mathematics Part 1 and 2 [English] Class 12
पाठ 2 Inverse Trigonometric Functions
Miscellaneous Exercise on Chapter 2 | Q 14. | पृष्ठ ३१

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