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If from Lagrange'S Mean Value Theorem, We Have F ′ ( X 1 ) = F ′ ( B ) − F ( a ) B − a , Then (A) a < X1 ≤ B (B) a ≤ X1 < B (C) a < X1 < B (D) a ≤ X1 ≤ B - Mathematics

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प्रश्न

If from Lagrange's mean value theorem, we have \[f' \left( x_1 \right) = \frac{f' \left( b \right) - f \left( a \right)}{b - a}, \text { then }\]

 

विकल्प

  • a < x1 ≤ b

  •  a ≤ x1 < b

  • a < x1 < b

  • a ≤ x1 ≤ b

MCQ
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उत्तर

 a < x1 < b

In the Lagrange's mean value theorem,\[c \in \left( a, b \right)\] such that  \[f'\left( c \right) = \frac{f\left( b \right) - f\left( a \right)}{b - a}\].

So, if there is \[x_1\] such that \[f'\left( x_1 \right) = \frac{f\left( b \right) - f\left( a \right)}{b - a}\] then \[x_1 \in \left( a, b \right)\].

\[\Rightarrow a < x_1 < b\]

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अध्याय 15: Mean Value Theorems - Exercise 15.4 [पृष्ठ १९]

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आरडी शर्मा Mathematics [English] Class 12
अध्याय 15 Mean Value Theorems
Exercise 15.4 | Q 4 | पृष्ठ १९

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