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Question
Why can \[\int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\sin^{2}x\,dx\] be written as \[2\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\sin^{2}x\,dx\]?
Options
\[\sin^{2}x\] satisfies \[f(2a-x)=-f(x)\]
\[\sin^{2}x\] is an even function
The upper and lower limits are equal
\[\sin^{2}x\] is an odd function
MCQ
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Solution
\[\sin^{2}x\] is an even function. Therefore \[P_7\](i) changes the symmetric integral into twice the integral from \[0\] to \[\frac{\pi}{4}\].
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