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Question
Which property of inverse functions is represented by \((f^{-1})^{-1}=f\)?
Options
The inverse of a bijection is not a function.
The inverse of an inverse function is the original function itself.
The inverse changes the codomain into the domain only.
The inverse always equals the identity function.
MCQ
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Solution
Taking the inverse reverses a function’s mapping. Applying this reversal twice returns the original function, so \((f^{-1})^{-1}=f\).
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