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Question
If x is the mean of n observations x1, x2, x3, ... xn, then prove that `sum_(i = 1)^n (x_i - barx) = 0`.
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Solution
Given: `barx` is the mean of n observations x1, x2, x3, ... xn so `barx = (1/n) sum_(i = 1)^n x_i`.
To Prove: `sum_(i = 1)^n (x_i - barx) = 0`.
Proof [Step-wise]:
1. Start with the sum: `sum_(i = 1)^n (x_i - barx) = sum_(i = 1)^n x_i - sum_(i = 1)^n barx`.
2. `barx` is a constant does not depend on i, so `sum_(i = 1)^n barx = n·barx`.
3. Therefore, `sum_(i = 1)^n (x_i - barx) = sum_(i = 1)^n x_i - n·barx`.
4. By the definition of the mean, `barx = (1/n) sum_(i = 1)^n x_i`, so `n·barx = sum_(i = 1)^n x_i`.
5. Substituting gives `sum_(i = 1)^n (x_i - barx) = sum_(i = 1)^n x_i - sum_(i = 1)^n x_i = 0`.
Hence, `sum_(i = 1)^n (x_i - barx) = 0`, as required.
Notes
There is a printing mistake in the question.
