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प्रश्न
If the sum of m terms of an A.P. is equal to the sum of either the next n terms or the next p terms, then prove that `(m + n) (1/m - 1/p) = (m + p) (1/m - 1/n)`
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उत्तर
Let the A.P. be a, a + d, a + 2d, ...
We are given
a1 + a2 + ... + am = am+1 + am+2 + ... + am+n .....(1)
Adding a1 + a2 + ... + am on both sides of (1), we get
2[a1 + a2 + ... + am] = a1 + a2 + ... + am + am+1 + ... + am+n
2 Sm = Sm+n
Therefore, `2 m/2{2a + (m - 1)d} = (m + n)/2 {2a + (m + n - 1)d}`
Putting 2a + (m – 1) d = x in the above equation, we get
mx = `(m + n)/2` (x + nd)
(2m – m – n)x = (m + n)nd
⇒ (m – n)x = (m + n) nd ....(2)
Similarly, if a1 + a2 + ... + am = am + 1 + am + 2 + ... + am + p
Adding a1 + a2 + ... + am on both sides
we get, 2(a1 + a2 + ... + am) = a1 + a2 + ... + am + 1 + ... + am + p
or 2 Sm = Sm + p
⇒ `2 m/2 {2a + (m - 1)d} = (m + p)/2 {2a + (m + p - 1)d}` which gives
i.e., (m – p) x = (m + p)pd ....(3)
Dividing (2) by (3), we get
`((m - n)x)/((m - px)) = ((m + n)nd)/((m + p)pd)`
⇒ (m – n)(m + p)p = (m – p)(m + n)n
Dividing both sides by mnp, we get
`(m + p)(1/n - 1/m) = (m + n) (1/p - 1/m)`
= `(m + n) (1/m - 1/p) = (m + p) (1/m - 1/n)`
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