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Question
Consider the following statements regarding the "Pakistan" Resolution:
- On 23 March 1940, the League moved a resolution demanding a measure of autonomy for the Muslim majority areas of the subcontinent.
- Sikandar Hayat Khan, Punjab Premier and leader of the Unionist Party, who had drafted. · the resolution declared in a Punjab assembly speech on 1 March 1941 that he .was opposed to a Pakistan" that would mean "Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere ...
- The origins of the Pakistan demand have also been traced back to the Urdu poet Mohammad Iqbal, the writer of "Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan Hamara"...
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
Options
Only I
I and II
I and ill
All of the above
Solution
All of the above
Explanation:
Pakistan's demand was gradually formalised. On March 23, 1940, the League introduced a resolution calling for greater autonomy for the subcontinent's Muslim majority areas. This ambiguous resolution made no reference to partition or Pakistan. In fact, Sikandar Hayat Khan, Punjab Premier and Unionist Party leader, who drafted the resolution, declared in a Punjab assembly speech on 1 March 1941 that he was opposed to a Pakistan that meant "Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere... If Pakistan means unalloyed Muslim Raj in the Punjab, I will have nothing to do with it." He repeated his call for a loose (united) confederation with significant autonomy for the confederating units.