Give reasons or explain the following statement:
In a rich country marginal propensity to consume is less.
Advertisement Remove all ads
Solution
In rich countries, the people tend to save more due to various motives such as motive of independence, foresight, calculation, etc. Due to this, the people in rich countries tend to consume less with rising incomes. This in turn result in lower marginal propensity to consume.
Concept: Diminishing Marginal Utility
Is there an error in this question or solution?
Advertisement Remove all ads
APPEARS IN
Advertisement Remove all ads
Advertisement Remove all ads